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Benefit reserves retrospective method

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  • Benefit reserves retrospective method

    A continuous whole life annuity on (x) is changed into the complete life expectancy on (x). How is that possible?
    Last edited by truth in lending; January 8 2006, 12:29 PM.

  • #2
    The complete expentancy is the integral of
    v^t tpx . If i = 0 , then v = 1 and the integral
    reduces to the integral of tpx alone, which is
    an expectancy.
    Sam Broverman

    [email protected]
    www.sambroverman.com

    Comment


    • #3
      Hello Sir:

      Thank you for your help... I finally got it. (I hope it's fine to clarify something....)

      I want to clarfiy from your previous reply - "The complete expentancy is the integral of v^t tpx . If i = 0 , then v = 1 and the integral reduces to the integral of tpx alone, which is an expectancy."

      Should it be "The life annuity is the integral of v^t tpx (under current payment approach). If i = 0 , then v = 1 and the integral reduces to the integral of tpx alone, which is an expectancy." ?

      Comment


      • #4
        Yes, you are right. What I meant was that the integral
        of v^t tpx is the actuarial present value of a life annuity.
        Thanks for pointing that out.
        Sam Broverman

        [email protected]
        www.sambroverman.com

        Comment


        • #5
          No problem!

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